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<record version="2" id="10554">
 <title>Boolean algebra homomorphism</title>
 <name>BooleanAlgebraHomomorphism</name>
 <created>2008-04-29 01:08:27</created>
 <modified>2008-04-29 02:29:25</modified>
 <type>Definition</type>
<parent id="2594">Boolean lattice</parent>
 <creator id="3771" name="CWoo"/>
 <author id="3771" name="CWoo"/>
 <classification>
	<category scheme="msc" code="03G10"/>
	<category scheme="msc" code="06B20"/>
	<category scheme="msc" code="03G05"/>
	<category scheme="msc" code="06E05"/>
 </classification>
 <defines>
	<concept>kernel</concept>
	<concept>complete Boolean algebra homomorphism</concept>
	<concept>$\kappa$-complete Boolean algbra homomorphism</concept>
 </defines>
 <synonyms>
	<synonym concept="Boolean algebra homomorphism" alias="Boolean homomorphism"/>
 </synonyms>
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 <content>Let $A$ and $B$ be Boolean algebras.  A function $f:A\to B$ is called a \emph{Boolean algebra homomorphism}, or homomorphism for short, if $f$ is a $\lbrace 0,1\rbrace$-\PMlinkname{lattice homomorphism}{LatticeHomomorphism} such that $f$ respects $'$: $f(a')=f(a)'$.  

Typically, to show that a function between two Boolean algebras is a Boolean algebra homomorphism, it is not necessary to check every defining condition.  In fact, we have the following:
\begin{enumerate}
\item if $f$ respects $'$, then $f$ respects $\vee$ iff it respects $\wedge$;
\item if $f$ is a lattice homomorphism, then $f$ respects $0$ and $1$ iff it respects $'$.
\end{enumerate}
The first assertion can be shown by de Morgan's laws.  For example, to see the LHS implies RHS, $f(a\wedge b)= f((a'\vee b')')= f(a'\vee b')'=((f(a')\vee f(b'))'= f(a')'\wedge f(b')'= f(a)'' \wedge f(b)'' = f(a)\wedge f(b)$.  The second assertion can also be easily proved.  For example, to see that the LHS implies RHS, we have that $f(a')\vee f(a)= f(a'\vee a)=f(1)=1$ and $f(a')\wedge f(a)=f(a'\wedge a)=f(0)=0$.  Together, this implies that $f(a')$ is the complement of $f(a)$, which is $f(a)'$.

If a function satisfies one, and hence all, of the above conditions also satisfies the property that $f(0)=0$, for $f(0)=f(a\wedge a')=f(a)\wedge f(a')= f(a)\wedge f(a)'=0$.  Dually, $f(1)=1$.

As a Boolean algebra is an algebraic system, the definition of a Boolean algebra homormphism is just a special case of an algebra homomorphism between two algebraic systems.  Therefore, one may similarly define a Boolean algebra monomorphism, epimorphism, endormophism, automorphism, and isomorphism.

Let $f:A\to B$ be a Boolean algebra homomorphism.  Then the \emph{kernel} of $f$ is the set $\lbrace a\in A\mid f(a)=0\rbrace$, and is written $\ker(f)$.  Observe that $\ker(f)$ is a Boolean ideal of $A$.

Let $\kappa$ be a cardinal.  A Boolean algebra homomorphism $f:A\to B$ is said to be $\kappa$-complete if for any subset $C\subseteq A$ such that 
\begin{enumerate}
\item $|C|\le \kappa$, and 
\item $\bigvee C$ exists, 
\end{enumerate}
then $\bigvee f(C)$ exists and is equal to $f(\bigvee C)$.  Here, $f(C)$ is the set $\lbrace f(c)\mid c\in C\rbrace$.  Note that again, by de Morgan's laws, if $\bigwedge C$ exists, then $\bigwedge f(C)$ exists and is equal to $f(\bigwedge C)$.  If we place no restrictions on the cardinality of $C$ (i.e., drop condition 1), then $f:A\to B$ is said to be a \emph{complete Boolean algebra homomorphism}.  In the categories of $\kappa$-complete Boolean algebras and complete Boolean algebras, the morphisms are $\kappa$-complete homomorphisms and complete homomorphisms respectively.</content>
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