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<record version="3" id="3547">
 <title>Ces\`aro summability</title>
 <name>CesaroSummability</name>
 <created>2002-10-29 10:45:32</created>
 <modified>2002-10-29 13:15:34</modified>
 <type>Definition</type>
 <creator id="146" name="rmilson"/>
 <author id="146" name="rmilson"/>
 <classification>
	<category scheme="msc" code="40G05"/>
 </classification>
 <related>
	<object name="CesaroMean"/>
 </related>
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\newtheorem{theorem}[proposition]{Theorem}</preamble>
 <content>Ces\`aro summability is a generalized convergence criterion for infinite
series.  We say that a series $\sum_{n=0}^\infty a_n$ is
Ces\`aro summable if the Ces\`aro means of the partial sums converge to
some limit $L$.  To be more precise, letting $$s_N=\sum_{n=0}^N a_n$$
denote the $N\supth$ partial sum, we say that $\sum_{n=0}^\infty a_n$
Ces\`aro converges to a limit $L$, if
$$\frac{1}{N+1}(s_0+\ldots+s_N) \rightarrow L \quad\text{as}\quad N\rightarrow\infty.$$

Ces\`aro summability is a generalization of the usual definition of the
limit of an infinite series.  
\begin{proposition}
  Suppose that
  $$\sum_{n=0}^\infty a_n = L,$$
  in the usual sense that
  $s_N\rightarrow L$ as $N\rightarrow\infty$.  Then, the series in
  question Ces\`aro converges to the same
  limit.
\end{proposition}
The converse, however is false.  The standard example of a divergent
series, that is nonetheless Ces\`aro summable is
$$\sum_{n=0}^\infty (-1)^n.$$
The sequence of partial sums
$1,0,1,0,\ldots$ does not converge.  The Ces\`aro means, namely
$$\frac{1}{1},\frac{1}{2},\frac{2}{3},\frac{2}{4},\frac{3}{5},\frac{3}{6},
\ldots$$
do converge, with $1/2$ as the limit. Hence the series in
question is Ces\`aro summable.

There is also a relation between Ces\`aro summability and Abel
summability\footnote{This and similar results are often called Abelian
  theorems.}.
\begin{theorem}[Frobenius]
  A series that is Ces\`aro summable is also Abel summable.  To be more
  precise, suppose that
  $$\frac{1}{N+1}(s_0+\ldots+s_N) \rightarrow L \quad\text{as}\quad
  N\rightarrow\infty.$$
  Then,
  $$f(r) = \sum_{n=0}^\infty a_n r^n \rightarrow L \quad\text{as}\quad
  r\rightarrow 1^{-}$$ as well.
\end{theorem}</content>
</record>
