|
|
Viewing Message
|
|
|
| ``Is there a theoretical advantage?''
by Algeboy on 2006-08-14 15:41:09 |
|
| Is there a real grammatical difference between infix (standard), prefix (Polish) or postfix (reverse Polish)?
I mean this in the sense of Chomsky hierarchy, (push-down automatas etc.). I believe they all can be accepted by a PDA, though the infix seems more tricky. Also when parentheses are replaced with order of operation conventions, the length of an infix expression can be less than the equivalent pre/post-fix notation, though I'm sure that the reverse is also true in some instances.
|
| | [ reply | up ] | |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|