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``Is there a theoretical advantage?'' by Algeboy on 2006-08-14 15:41:09
Is there a real grammatical difference between infix (standard), prefix (Polish) or postfix (reverse Polish)?

I mean this in the sense of Chomsky hierarchy, (push-down automatas etc.). I believe they all can be accepted by a PDA, though the infix seems more tricky. Also when parentheses are replaced with order of operation conventions, the length of an infix expression can be less than the equivalent pre/post-fix notation, though I'm sure that the reverse is also true in some instances.

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