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Viewing Message

``Equivalence of equations'' by Philidor on 2009-10-27 16:54:52

I was wondering whether everyone agrees that 0 is not in the solution set of the equation

(1) x*(1/x)=1

and that, hence, (1) is not equivalent to

(2) 1=1

[ reply | up ]

Re: Equivalence of equations by mathman on 2009-10-27 21:40:15
Re: Equivalence of equations by lvoyster on 2009-10-27 22:09:55
- Re: Equivalence of equations by Xtraeme on 2009-11-03 04:11:57
  - Re: Equivalence of equations by lvoyster on 2009-11-03 16:27:35
    - Re: Equivalence of equations by Xtraeme on 2009-11-03 18:00:04
Re: Equivalence of equations by perucho on 2009-10-28 03:02:55

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