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![[parent]](http://images.planetmath.org:8080/images/uparrow.png) Viewing Message
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| ``layout?''
by drini on 2001-10-06 03:30:39 |
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if $p$ and $q$ are such that $1/p+1/q=1$ then...
cause it looks like you're multiplying the norms with the fractions...
f
G -----> H G
p \ /_ ----- ~ f(G)
\ / f ker f
G/ker f |
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