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| ``Re: Proof of Chebyshev's inequality by induction''
by vernondalhart on 2004-05-19 08:14:36 |
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| From a proper axiomatic standpoint, you're certainly correct. But while technically everything in mathematics should be derived from the axioms, this is often not really the case.
Really, I think his point was that if you can show something for an arbitrary integer $n$, then you've shown that it holds true for all $n$. I mean, if it only depends on that one value $n$ and on none of the $m \le n$, then that is basically a proof by induction, just a remarkably simple one. |
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