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![[parent]](http://images.planetmath.org:8080/images/uparrow.png) Viewing Message
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| ``generalized means inequality?''
by igor on 2004-08-09 11:13:30 |
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| Would it be possible to extend geometric-arithmetic-harmonic means
inequality to the case of generalized means?
I would foresee something like: given some conditions on f(x) and
g(x), the respective generalized means satisfy some given inequality.
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