You wrote in your first answer to my post
> But Lebesque integrals of functions having different values on the set of measure zero are equal,
So am I understanding your statemant right, are you saying that the Lebesque integral f(x)dx = 0, aren't you?
But my dilema ;) (question) is that how come f() is Riemann integrable (cuz I know it's Lebesgue integrable, but that doesn't interest me (right now:))
thanx, emil
PS: I understand the difference in g() and f() in cotinueity. but I asked what the difference was, concerning Riemann integrability, what can you tell me about f(x) that makes it integrable, that g(x) "doesn't have"
And once again, sorry for my bad way of expressing my selfe, hope to impruve in the future
and to tell you the truth I alsa learnd that g(x) is the Dirichlet function (with 0 and 1 ) not the other one (we call it Riemann function) but some math web sites call it Dirichlet fn... :) |
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