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| ``Possible Counterexample''
by zexy on 2005-05-01 02:33:46 |
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| Assume that all of the subsets are degenerate, and lie within the same (m-1)-dim hyperplane.
The only (m-1)-dim hyperplane that would satisfy the theorem is the hyperplane that the subsets lie within. Yet, can we cut them with the hyperplane? Especially into two equal subsets?
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