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![[parent]](http://images.planetmath.org:8080/images/uparrow.png) Viewing Message
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| ``Re: Possible Counterexample''
by bs on 2005-05-01 03:16:48 |
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| | The intersection of the sets A_i with the hyperplane doesn't matter, because the hyperplane has measure 0. In particular if each of the A_i lies in a hyperplane then each has measure 0 and any hyperplane at all would satisfy the condition of the theorem. |
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