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![[parent]](http://images.planetmath.org:8080/images/uparrow.png) Viewing Message
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| ``Re: is the converse true?''
by perucho on 2005-07-31 02:57:40 |
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| Hi Gorkem,
According to which stevecheng explained to me, it seems to be that Darboux's theorem deals with a kind of "weak" continuity (really I didn't know about that) that is not the conventional concept of continuity. So f(x) not necessarily is integrable and your question is not as trivial as I thought.
Sincerely,
perucho |
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