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![[parent]](http://images.planetmath.org:8080/images/uparrow.png) Viewing Message
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| ``Re: Multiplicativity of Mangoldt function''
by KimJ on 2002-09-05 21:28:13 |
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| | I don't think so. Let p, q be two distinct primes, and let n = pq. Then the Mangoldt function of n is 0 (since pq is not the power of a single prime), but the Mangoldt functions of p and q are log p and log q, respectively. |
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