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[parent] proof of Riesz representation theorem (Proof)

Existence - If $f=0$ we can just take $u=0$ and thereby have $f(x) =0= \langle x, 0\rangle$ for all $x \in \mathcal{H}$ .

Suppose now $f \neq 0$ , i.e. $Ker f \neq \mathcal{H}$ .

Recall that, since $f$ is continuous, $Ker f$ is a closed subspace of $\mathcal{H}$ (continuity of $f$ implies that $f^{-1}(0)$ is closed in $\mathcal{H}$ ). It then follows from the orthogonal decomposition theorem that

$\displaystyle \mathcal{H} = Ker f \oplus (Ker f)^{\perp} $
and as $Ker f \neq \mathcal{H}$ we can find $z \in (Ker f)^{\perp}$ such that $\|z\| = 1$ .

It follows easily from the linearity of $f$ that for every $x \in \mathcal{H}$ we have

$\displaystyle f(x)z-f(z)x \in Ker f $
and since $z \in (Ker f)^{\perp}$ \begin{eqnarray*} \quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad 0 & = & \langle f(x)z -f(z)x, z \rangle \\ & = & f(x)\langle z, z\rangle - f(z)\langle x, z\rangle \\ & = & f(x)\|z\|^2 - \langle x, \overline{f(z)} z\rangle \\ & = & f(x) - \langle x, \overline{f(z)} z\rangle \end{eqnarray*} which implies

$\displaystyle f(x) = \langle x, \overline{f(z)} z\rangle \; . $

The theorem then follows by taking $u = \overline{f(z)} z$ .

Uniqueness - Suppose there were $u_1, u_2 \in \mathcal{H}$ such that for every $x \in \mathcal{H}$

$\displaystyle f(x)= \langle x, u_1 \rangle = \langle x, u_2 \rangle . $

Then $\langle x, u_1 -u_2 \rangle = 0$ for every $x \in \mathcal{H}$ . Taking $x = u_1 - u_2$ we obtain $\|u_1-u_2\|^2 = 0$ , which implies $u_1 = u_2$ . $\square$




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Cross-references: theorem, orthogonal decomposition theorem, implies, subspace, closed

This is version 2 of proof of Riesz representation theorem, born on 2007-09-16, modified 2007-09-16.
Object id is 9943, canonical name is ProofOfRieszRepresentationTheorem.
Accessed 1919 times total.

Classification:
AMS MSC46C99 (Functional analysis :: Inner product spaces and their generalizations, Hilbert spaces :: Miscellaneous)

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