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Revision difference : surjection and axiom of choice
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In this entry, we show the statement that In this entry, we show the statement that
\begin{quote} \begin{quote}
(*) every surjection has a left inverse (*) every surjection has a left inverse
\end{quote} \end{quote}
is equivalent to the axiom of choice (AC). is equivalent to the axiom of choice (AC).
\begin{prop} AC implies (*). \end{prop} \begin{prop} AC implies (*). \end{prop}
\begin{proof} \begin{proof}
Let $f:A\to B$ be a surjection. Then the set $C:=\lbrace f^{-1}(y)\mid y\in B\rbrace$ partitions $A$. By the axiom of choice, there is a function $g:C\to \bigcup C$ such that $g(f^{-1}(y))\in f^{-1}(y)$ for every $y\in B$. Since $\bigcup C=A$, $g$ is a function from $C$ to $A$. Define $h:B\to A$ by $h(y)=g(f^{-1}(y))$. Then $h(y)\in f^{-1}(y)$, and therefore $(f\circ h)(y)=f(h(y))=y$, implying that $f$ has a left inverse. Let $f:A\to B$ be a surjection. Then the set $C:=\lbrace f^{-1}(y)\mid y\in B\rbrace$ partitions $A$. By the axiom of choice, there is a function $g:C\to \bigcup C$ such that $g(f^{-1}(y))\in f^{-1}(y)$ for every $y\in B$. Since $\bigcup C=A$, $g$ is a function from $C$ to $A$. Define $h:B\to A$ by $h(y)=g(f^{-1}(y))$. Then $h(y)\in f^{-1}(y)$, and therefore $(f\circ h)(y)=f(h(y))=y$, implying that $f$ has a left inverse.
\end{proof} \end{proof}
\begin{prop} (*) implies AC. \end{prop} \begin{prop} (*) implies AC. \end{prop}
Before proving this, let us remark that, in the collection $C$ of non-empty sets of the axiom of choice, there is no assumption that the sets in $C$ be pairwise disjoint. The statement Before proving this, let us remark that, in the axiom of choice, the collection $C$ of non-empty sets, there is no assumption that the sets in $C$ be pairwise disjoint. The statement
\begin{quote} (**) given a set $C$ of pairwise disjoint non-empty sets, there is a choice function $f:C\to \bigcup C$ \begin{quote} (**) given a set $C$ of pairwise disjoint non-empty sets, there is a choice function $f:C\to \bigcup C$
\end{quote} \end{quote}
seemingly weaker than AC, turns out to be equivalent to AC, and we will prove this fact first. seemingly weaker than AC, turns out to be equivalent to AC, and we will prove this fact first.
\begin{proof} \begin{proof}
Obviously AC implies (**). Conversely, assume (**). Let $C$ be a collection of non-empty sets. We assume $C\ne \varnothing$. For each $a\in C$, define a set $A_a:=\lbrace (x,a)\mid x\in a\rbrace$. Since $a\ne \varnothing$, $A_a\ne \varnothing$. In addition, $A_a\cap A_b= \varnothing$ iff $a\ne b$ (true since elements of $A_a$ and elements of $A_b$ have distinct second coordinates). So the collection $D:=\lbrace A_a\mid a\in C\rbrace$ is a set consisting of pairwise disjoint non-empty sets. By (**), there is a function $f:D\to \bigcup D$ such that $f(A_a)\in A_a$ for every $a\in C$. Now, define two functions $g: C\to D$ and $h:\bigcup D\to \bigcup C$ by $g(a)=A_a$ and $h(x,a)=x$ Then, for any $a\in C$, we have $(h\circ f \circ g)(a)=h(f(A_a))$. Since $f(A_a)\in A_a$, its first coordinate is an element of $a$. Therefore $h(f(A_a))\in a$, and hence $h\circ f\circ g$ is the desired choice function. Obviously AC implies (**). Conversely, assume (**). Let $C$ be a collection of non-empty sets. We assume $C\ne \varnothing$. For each $a\in C$, define a set $A_a:=\lbrace (x,a)\mid x\in a\rbrace$. Since $a\ne \varnothing$, $A_a\ne \varnothing$. In addition, $A_a\cap A_b= \varnothing$ iff $a\ne b$ (true since elements of $A_a$ and elements of $A_b$ have distinct second coordinates). So the collection $D:=\lbrace A_a\mid a\in C\rbrace$ is a set consisting of pairwise disjoint non-empty sets. By (**), there is a function $f:D\to \bigcup D$ such that $f(A_a)\in A_a$ for every $a\in C$. Now, define two functions $g: C\to D$ and $h:\bigcup D\to \bigcup C$ by $g(a)=A_a$ and $h(x,a)=x$ Then, for any $a\in C$, we have $(h\circ f \circ g)(a)=h(f(A_a))$. Since $f(A_a)\in A_a$, its first coordinate is an element of $a$. Therefore $h(f(A_a))\in a$, and hence $h\circ f\circ g$ is the desired choice function.
\end{proof} \end{proof}
\begin{proof}[Proof of Propositon 2] We show that (*) implies (**), and since (**) implies AC as shown above, the proof of Proposition 2 is then complete. \begin{proof}[Proof of Propositon 2] We show that (*) implies (**), and since (**) implies AC as shown above, the proof of Proposition 2 is then complete.
Let $C$ be a collection of pairwise disjoint non-empty sets. Each element of $\bigcup C$ belongs to a unique set in $C$. Then the function $g:\bigcup C \to C$ taking each element of $\bigcup C$ to the set it belongs in $C$, is a well-defined function. It is clearly surjective. Hence, by assumption, there is a function $f:C\to \bigcup C$ such that $g\circ f=1_C$. For each $x\in C$, $g(f(x))=x$, which is the same as saying that $f(x)$ is an element of $x$ by the definition of $g$. Let $C$ be a collection of pairwise disjoint non-empty sets. Each element of $\bigcup C$ belongs to a unique set in $C$. Then the function $g:\bigcup C \to C$ taking each element of $\bigcup C$ to the set it belongs in $C$, is a well-defined function. It is clearly surjective. Hence, by assumption, there is a function $f:C\to \bigcup C$ such that $g\circ f=1_C$. For each $x\in C$, $g(f(x))=x$, which is the same as saying that $f(x)$ is an element of $x$ by the definition of $g$.
\end{proof} \end{proof}