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Revision difference : convergence condition of infinite product
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In the \PMlinkescapetext{complex analysis}, one often uses the definition of the convergence of infinite product $\prod_{k = 1}^{\infty}u_k$ where the case\, $\lim_{k\to\infty}u_1u_2\cdots u_k = 0$ is excluded.\, Then one has the \begin{thmplain} \,The infinite product $\prod_{k = 1}^{\infty}u_k$ of the non-zero complex numbers $u_1$, $u_2$, ... is convergent iff for every positive number $\varepsilon$ there exists a positive number $n_\varepsilon$ such that the condition
\begin{thmplain}\, The infinite product $\prod_{k = 1}^{\infty}u_k$ of the non-zero complex numbers $u_1$, $u_2$, ... is convergent iff for every positive number $\varepsilon$ there exists a positive number $n_\varepsilon$ such that the condition
$$|u_{n+1}u_{n+2}...u_{n+p}-1| < \varepsilon \quad \forall \,p\in\mathbb{Z}_+$$ $$|u_{n+1}u_{n+2}...u_{n+p}-1| < \varepsilon \quad \forall \,p\in\mathbb{Z}_+$$
is true as soon as \,$n \geqq n_\varepsilon$. is true as soon as \,$n \geqq n_\varepsilon$.
\end{thmplain} \end{thmplain}
\textbf{Corollary.}\, If the infinite product converges, then we necessarily have\, $\lim_{k\to\infty}u_k = 1$. \textbf{Corollary.} \,If the infinite product converges, then we necessarily have \,$\lim_{k\to\infty}u_k = 1$.
When the infinite product converges, we say that the {\em value of the infinite product} is equal to $\lim_{k\to\infty} u_1u_2...u_k$. When the infinite product converges, we say that the {\em value of the infinite product} is equal to $\lim_{k\to\infty} u_1u_2...u_k$.