Proof. If

is finite and

is infinite, then we are done. Suppose now that

is infinite. Since

is linearly independent, there is a
superset 
of

that is a basis for

. Since

is infinite, so is

, and therefore all bases for

are infinite, and have the same cardinality as that of

. Since

spans

, there is a subset

of

that is a basis for

. As a result, we have

.
Now, we suppose that
and
are both finite. The case where
is clear. So assume
. As
spans
,
. Let
and
and assume

. So

for all

. Since

spans

,

can be expressed as a
linear combination of elements of

. In this
expression, at least one of the
coefficients (in the
field 
) can not be
0 (or else

). Rename the elements if possible, so that

has a non-zero coefficient in the expression of

. This means that

can be written as a linear combination of

and the remaining

's. Set
As every element in

is a linear combination of elements of

, it is therefore a linear combination of elements of

. Thus,

spans

. Next, express

as a linear combination of elements in

. In this expression, if the only non-zero coefficient is in front
of

, then

and

would be
linearly dependent, a
contradiction! Therefore, there must be a non-zero coefficient in front of one of the

's, and after some renaming once more, we have that

is the one with a non-zero coefficient. Therefore,

, likewise, can be expressed as a linear combination of

and the remaining

's. It is easy to see that
spans

as well. Continue this process until all of the

's have been replaced, which is possible since

. We have finally arrived at the set
which is a
proper subset of

. In
addition,

spans

. But this would
imply that

is linearly dependent, a contradiction.
