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[parent] proof of equivalence of Fermat's Last Theorem to its analytic form (Proof)

Consider the Taylor expansion of the cosine function. We have

${\rm lim}_{s \to \infty} (A_s)=2-{\rm cos}\, x - {\rm cos}\, y$

and

${\rm lim}_{s \to \infty} (B_s)=1- {\rm cos}\, z$ .

For $r>x,y$ the sequence $a_r$ is decreasing as the denominator grows faster than the numerator. Hence for $s>x,y$ the sequence $A_s$ is increasing as $A_{s+4}=A_s+a_{s+2}-a_{s+4}$ and $a_{s+2}>a_{s+4}$ . So if $A_N>0$ for some $N>x,y$ , we have $2-{\rm cos}\, x - {\rm cos}\, y>0$ . Conversely if no such $N$ exists then $A_s \leq 0$ for $s>x,y$ , so its limit, $2-{\rm cos}\, x - {\rm cos}\, y$ , is also less than or equal to $0$ . However as this expression cannot be negative we would have $2-{\rm cos}\, x - {\rm cos}\, y =0$ .

Similarly for $r>z$ the sequence $b_r$ is decreasing, and for $s>z$ the sequence $B_s$ is increasing. So if $B_M>0$ for some $M>z$ we have $1- {\rm cos}\, z>0$ . Conversely if no such $M$ exists then $1- {\rm cos}\, z \leq 0$ . However as this expression cannot be negative we would have $1- {\rm cos}\, z = 0$ .

Note that $2-{\rm cos}\, x - {\rm cos}\, y =0$ precisely when $x,y \in 2\pi \mathbb{Z}$ . Also $1- {\rm cos}\, z = 0$ precisely when $z \in 2\pi \mathbb{Z}$ .

So the analytic form of the theorem may be read:

If for positive reals $x,y,z$ we have $x^n+y^n=z^n$ for some odd integer $n>2$ , then either $x$ or $y$ not in $2\pi \mathbb{Z}$ or $z$ not in $2\pi \mathbb{Z}$ .

Clearly this only fails if for positive integers $a,b,c$ and some odd $n>2$ , we have

$(2\pi a)^n+(2\pi b)^n = (2\pi c)^n$ .

Dividing through by $(2\pi)^n$ we see that $a^n + b^n =c^n$ .

Conversely suppose we have non-zero integers satisfying $a^n + b^n =c^n$ for some $n>2$ . If $n=4k$ we have $(a^k)^4+(b^k)^4=(c^k)^4$ , contradicting example of Fermat's last theorem. Hence if $n$ is even we may replace $a,b,c$ with $a^2,b^2,c^2$ and $n$ with $n/2$ , which will be odd and greater than 1 (and hence greater than 2 as it is odd). So without loss of generality we may assume $n$ odd.

Finally replace $a,b,c$ with their absolute values and if necessary reorder to obtain a positive integer solution. This would be a counterexample to the analytic form of the theorem as stated above.




"proof of equivalence of Fermat's Last Theorem to its analytic form" is owned by whm22.
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Cross-references: counterexample, solution, absolute values, without loss of generality, even, example of Fermat's last theorem, odd, integers, odd integer, reals, positive, theorem, negative, expression, limit, conversely, increasing, numerator, denominator, decreasing, sequence, function, cosine, Taylor expansion
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This is version 4 of proof of equivalence of Fermat's Last Theorem to its analytic form, born on 2006-10-11, modified 2006-10-12.
Object id is 8444, canonical name is ProofOfEquivalenceToAnalyticFormOfTheorem2.
Accessed 1155 times total.

Classification:
AMS MSC11D41 (Number theory :: Diophantine equations :: Higher degree equations; Fermat's equation)

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