converse of Darboux’s theorem (analysis) is not true


Darboux’ theorem says that, if f:ℝ→ℝ has an antiderivative, than f has to satisfy the intermediate value property, namely, for any a<b, for any number C with f⁢(a)<C<f⁢(b) or f⁢(b)<C<f⁢(a), there exists a c∈(a,b) such that f⁢(c)=C. With this theorem, we understand that if f does not satisfy the intermediate value property, then no function F satisfies F′=f on ℝ.

Now, we will give an example to show that the converseMathworldPlanetmath is not true, i.e., a function that satisfies the intermediate value property might still have no antiderivative.

Let

f⁢(x)={1x⁢cos⁡(ln⁡x)ifx>00ifx≤0.

First let us see that f satisfies the intermediate value property. Let a<b. If 0<a or b≤0, the property is satisfied, since f is continuousMathworldPlanetmathPlanetmath on (-∞,0] and (0,∞). If a≤0<b, we have f⁢(a)=0 and f⁢(b)=(1/b)⁢cos⁡(ln⁡b). Let C be between f⁢(a) and (b). Let a0=exp⁡(-2⁢π⁢k0+π) for some k0 large enough such that a0<b. Then f⁢(a0)=0=f⁢(a), and since f is continuous on (a0,b), we must have a c∈(a0,b) with f⁢(c)=C.

Assume, for a contradictionMathworldPlanetmathPlanetmath that there exists a differentiable function F such that F′⁢(x)=f⁢(x) on ℝ. Then consider the function G⁢(x)=sin⁡(ln⁡x) which is defined on (0,∞). We have G′⁢(x)=f⁢(x) on (0,∞), and since it is a an open connected set, we must have F⁢(x)=G⁢(x)+c on (0,∞) for some c∈ℝ. But then, we have

lim supx→0+⁡F⁢(x) =lim supx→0+⁡G⁢(x)+c=1+c

and

lim infx→0+⁡F⁢(x) =lim infx→0+⁡G⁢(x)+c=-1+c

which contradicts the differentiability of F at 0.

Title converse of Darboux’s theorem (analysisMathworldPlanetmath) is not true
Canonical name ConverseOfDarbouxsTheoremanalysisIsNotTrue
Date of creation 2013-03-22 17:33:51
Last modified on 2013-03-22 17:33:51
Owner Gorkem (3644)
Last modified by Gorkem (3644)
Numerical id 6
Author Gorkem (3644)
Entry type Example
Classification msc 26A06